For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the existence of feudalism presupposed the existence of a noble class. Yet th

admin2014-10-21  65

问题 For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the existence of feudalism presupposed the existence of a noble class. Yet there cannot be a noble class, properly speaking, unless both the titles that indicate superior noble status and the inheritance of such titles are sanctioned by law. Although feudalism existed in Europe as early as the eighth century, it was not until the twelfth century, when many feudal institutions were in decline, that the hereditary transfer of legally recognized titles of nobility first appeared. The statements above, if true, most strongly support which one of the following claims?

选项 A、To say that feudalism by definition requires the existence of a nobility is to employ a definition that distorts history.
B、Prior to the twelfth century, the institution of European feudalism functioned without the presence of a dominant class.
C、The fact that a societal group has a distinct legal status is not in itself sufficient to allow that group to be properly considered a social class.
D、The decline of feudalism in Europe was the only cause of the rise of a European nobility.
E、The prior existence of feudal institutions is a prerequisite for the emergence of a nobility, as defined in the strictest sense of the term.

答案A

解析 读明白问题永远是最重要的。本题问题目的中的support实际上不同于前面的support,它要求我们在段落论述正确的前提下,用段落的信息去支持五个选项中的一个选项,因此本题应属于“归纳”题型。这一点我们将在本篇第五章还有论述。本题的结论是只有法律认可那些预示较高地位的贵族头衔和这些头衔的继承权时,noble class才有可能存在。Fcudalism在欧洲起源于8世纪,但是当时法律上并没有对such titles和inheritance of such titles认可。因此,认为Feudalism by defini—tion需要nobility的存在很明显是在使用一个歪曲历史的定义,所以选项(A)是正确选项;(E)为段落原命题的逆命题;(D)毫无根据地把先前发生的事物当作是随后出现的事物的必要条件;(B)和(C)都不能从段落的结论中合理地推出。因此(B)、(C)、(D)和(E)都是错误选项。
转载请注明原文地址:https://jikaoti.com/ti/A4zYFFFM
本试题收录于: GMAT VERBAL题库GMAT分类
0

最新回复(0)